UPSC Prelims 2023 Question Paper with Answers Explanation

Welcome to the UPSC Prelims 2023 Question Paper with Answers Explanation! In this comprehensive guide, we will walk you through the question paper for the Civil Services Examination Preliminary stage. This question paper is a crucial component of the exam, consisting of multiple-choice questions designed to test your knowledge, aptitude, and problem-solving skills. We will not only provide you with the questions and their correct answers but also offer detailed explanations to help you understand the reasoning behind each answer. By delving into this resource, you will gain valuable insights into the topics covered, improve your exam preparation, and enhance your chances of success. Let’s dive in and explore the UPSC Prelims 2023 Question Paper together!

UPSC Prelims 2023 Question with Explanation

Q1. In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished a prominent Buddhist center under the Mahasanghika , located?

(a) Andhra 

(b) Gandhara 

(c) Kalingo 

(d) Magadha

The correct answer is (a) Andhra.

Explanation: Dhanyakataka was located in the region of Andhra. It was an ancient city that flourished as a prominent Buddhist center under the Mahasanghika sect. The Mahasanghika was one of the early Buddhist schools and Dhanyakataka played a significant role in its development. The city was known for its monastic institutions and was an important hub for Buddhist teachings and practices during ancient times.

Q2. With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements : 

1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin. 

2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics.

3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) All three 

(d) None

The correct answer is (c) All three.

Explanation:

  1. The first statement is correct. The concept of Stupa is indeed Buddhist in origin. Stupas were initially built as monuments to enshrine the physical remains or relics of the Buddha or other important Buddhist figures.
  2. The second statement is also correct. Stupas were generally used as repositories for relics. They were constructed with the purpose of preserving and honoring sacred relics, such as the ashes or bodily relics of the Buddha or revered monks.
  3. The third statement is correct as well. Stupas served as votive and commemorative structures in the Buddhist tradition. They were not only religious monuments but also symbols of devotion, reverence, and remembrance. Stupas were often built by Buddhist followers as acts of merit and as a way to commemorate important events or individuals in Buddhist history.

Therefore, all three statements are correct, and the correct answer is (c) All three.

Q3. With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well-known as-

(a) Capital cities

(b) Ports

(c) Centres of iron-and-steel making

(d) Shrines of Jain Tirthankaras

The correct answer is (b) Ports.

Explanation:

Korkai, Poompuhar, and Muchiri were well-known as ports in ancient South India.

  1. Korkai: Korkai was an ancient port city located in present-day Tamil Nadu. It was an important center of maritime trade and commerce during ancient times.
  2. Poompuhar: Poompuhar, also known as Kaveripattinam, was another ancient port city situated on the east coast of Tamil Nadu. It played a significant role in maritime trade and was known for its flourishing trade connections with various parts of the world.
  3. Muchiri: Muchiri, also known as Musiri, was a renowned port in ancient Tamil Nadu. It was an active center for maritime activities and trade, particularly during the Chola dynasty.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) Ports.

Q4. Which one of the following explains the practice of “Vattakirutal’ as mentioned in Sangam poems?

(a) Kings employing women bodyguards.

(b) Learned persona assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters

(c) Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals

(d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death

The correct answer is (c) Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals.

Explanation:

The practice of “Vattakirutal” mentioned in Sangam poems refers to the role of young girls in keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals. This practice was an important aspect of agriculture in ancient Tamil society.

In Tamil literature, particularly the Sangam literature, various aspects of daily life, including agricultural practices, were described. The poems highlighted the significance of protecting crops from birds and animals that could cause damage.

The term “Vattakirutal” specifically refers to the action of driving away birds and animals from the fields. Young girls would be assigned the task of guarding the crops and ensuring their safety from these potential threats.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals.

Q5.  Consider the following dynasties:

1. Hoysala 

2. Gahadavala 

3. Kakatiya 

4. Yadava

How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three 

(d) None

The correct answer is (d) None.

Explanation:

None of the dynasties mentioned in the options, namely Hoysala, Gahadavala, Kakatiya, and Yadava, established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD.

1. Hoysala dynasty: The Hoysala dynasty emerged in the 10th century AD and reached its peak during the 12th and 13th centuries AD.

2. Gahadavala dynasty: The Gahadavala dynasty was a medieval Indian dynasty that ruled parts of North India from the 11th century AD to the 12th century AD.

3. Kakatiya dynasty: The Kakatiya dynasty originated in the 12th century AD and ruled over a significant part of present-day Telangana and Andhra Pradesh in South India.

4. Yadava dynasty: The Yadava dynasty, also known as the Seuna dynasty, rose to power in the 12th century AD and ruled over parts of present-day Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Madhya Pradesh.

Therefore, none of these dynasties established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD, making the correct answer (d) None.

Q6. With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs 

Literary work : Author 

1. Devi Chandragupta : Bilhana 

2. Hammira-Mahakavya : Nayachandra Suri 

3. Melinda panha : Nagarjuna 

4. Nitivakyamrita : Somadeva Suri

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three 

(d) All four

The correct answer is (b) Only two.

Explanation:

Let’s analyze each pair:

1. Devi Chandragupta : Bilhana – This pair is not correctly matched. The literary work “Devi Chandragupta” was authored by Vishakhadatta, not Bilhana. Vishakhadatta was a Sanskrit playwright and the author of the famous play “Mudrarakshasa,” which includes the story of Chandragupta Maurya.

2. Hammira-Mahakavya : Nayachandra Suri – This pair is correctly matched. “Hammira-Mahakavya” is an epic poem about the Rajput king Hammira, and it was indeed authored by Nayachandra Suri.

3. Melinda panha : Nagarjuna – This pair is not correctly matched. The “Milinda Panha” is a Buddhist text written in Pali, and it is attributed to the Greek philosopher Menander (Milinda). Nagarjuna was an important Buddhist philosopher and scholar, but he is not associated with the authorship of the “Milinda Panha.”

4. Nitivakyamrita : Somadeva Suri – This pair is not correctly matched. “Nitivakyamrita” is a Sanskrit work on political ethics attributed to Kamandaka, not Somadeva Suri. Somadeva Suri was a Jain scholar and poet, known for his work “Kathasaritsagara.”

Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched: (b) Only two.

Q7. ‘Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects’. The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India? 

(a) Buddhism 

(b) Jainism 

(c) Shaivism 

(d) Vaishnavism

The correct answer is (b) Jainism.

Explanation:

The statement reflects one of the core beliefs of Jainism. Jainism is an ancient Indian religious sect that emphasizes non-violence (ahimsa), truth (satya), and non-possession (aparigraha) as its fundamental principles.

Jainism holds the belief in the concept of “Jiva” or the soul, which is not limited to animal and plant life but extends to all living beings, including rocks, running water, and other natural objects. According to Jain philosophy, every living and non-living entity possesses a soul or consciousness, and all souls are considered equal and worthy of respect.

This belief in the universal presence of souls, even in seemingly inanimate objects, distinguishes Jainism from other religious sects and is aligned with the statement provided in the question.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) Jainism.

Q8. Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometers long from the river to the capital city? 

(a) Devaraya I 

(b) Mallikarjuna 

(c) Vira Vijaya 

(d) Virupaksha

The correct answer is (a) Devaraya I.

Explanation:

Devaraya I, also known as Devaraya II or Deva Raya II, was one of the prominent rulers of the Vijayanagara Empire. He ruled from 1422 CE to 1446 CE and made significant contributions to the empire’s infrastructure.

Devaraya I is known for constructing a large dam across the Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct that extended for several kilometers from the river to the capital city. This water management system played a crucial role in ensuring a stable water supply for the capital city and its surrounding areas.

The construction of the dam and canal-cum-aqueduct by Devaraya I demonstrated his efforts to develop and improve the irrigation and water management systems in the Vijayanagara Empire, promoting agricultural prosperity and the overall well-being of the region.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a) Devaraya I.

Q9. Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to the Portuguese? 

(a) Ahmad Shah 

(b) Mahmud Begarha 

(c) Bahadur Shah 

(d) Muhammad Shah

The correct answer is (c) Bahadur Shah.

Explanation:

Bahadur Shah, the ruler of medieval Gujarat, surrendered Diu to the Portuguese.

Diu is a small island located off the coast of Gujarat. It was a significant trading port and strategic location during medieval times. The Portuguese, led by their naval commander, Afonso de Albuquerque, established a stronghold in Diu in the early 16th century.

Bahadur Shah was the Sultan of Gujarat during that period. In 1535, he faced a military confrontation with the Portuguese forces. Ultimately, he surrendered Diu to the Portuguese, allowing them to strengthen their control over the region.

The surrender of Diu to the Portuguese by Bahadur Shah marked a significant turning point in the history of Gujarat and the Portuguese presence in India.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Bahadur Shah.

Q10. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?

(a) The Regulating Act 

(b) The Pitt’s India Act 

(c) The Charter Act of 1793 

(d) The Charter Act of 1833

The correct answer is (d) The Charter Act of 1833.

Explanation:

The Governor General of Bengal was designated as the Governor General of India by the Charter Act of 1833.

The Charter Act of 1833 was an important piece of legislation passed by the British Parliament to regulate the affairs of British India. This act introduced significant changes in the governance and administration of India.

One of the key provisions of the Charter Act of 1833 was the centralization of British India’s administration. It abolished the Governor General of Bengal and replaced it with the Governor General of India. The Governor General of India became the supreme authority overseeing the administration of all British territories in India.

This act also introduced other reforms, such as the appointment of a Law Commission, the creation of a separate legislative council, and the separation of legislative and executive functions.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d) The Charter Act of 1833.

Q11. In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean? 

(a) The principle of natural justice 

(b) The procedure established by law 

(c) Fair application of law 

(d) Equality before law

Both option (a) “The principle of natural justice” and option (c) “Fair application of law” can be considered correct interpretations of “Due Process of Law.”

Q12. Consider the following statements 

Statement-I : In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. 

Statement-II : In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I1 is not the correct explanation for Statement-I 

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect 

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

The correct answer is (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Explanation:

Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.

This statement is correct. In India, the administration and management of prisons are primarily the responsibility of the State Governments. Each State has its own set of rules and regulations for the day-to-day functioning of prisons, including aspects like security, discipline, and prisoner welfare.

Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894, which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

This statement is also correct. The Prisons Act, 1894 is a legislation that governs the functioning of prisons in India. However, it is important to note that while the Act provides a framework and guidelines for prison administration, the day-to-day administration of prisons is managed by the State Governments as per their own rules and regulations.

Explanation relationship:

Statement-II does not serve as an explanation for Statement-I. Both statements independently highlight different aspects of the prison administration in India. Statement-I describes the role of State Governments in managing prisons, while Statement-II mentions the Prisons Act, 1894, which governs prisons but does not dictate the day-to-day administration by State Governments.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Q13. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the `Constitution’ of a country? 

(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws. 

(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government. 

(c) It defines and limits the powers of government. 

(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security.

The correct answer is (c) It defines and limits the powers of government.

Explanation:

The chief purpose of a constitution in any country is to define and limit the powers of the government. A constitution serves as a fundamental law that establishes the framework of government, outlines the structure and functions of different branches of government, and defines the rights and responsibilities of citizens. It sets out the principles, values, and rules that govern the exercise of power by the government.

By defining and limiting the powers of the government, a constitution ensures that the government operates within specified boundaries, prevents the abuse of power, and protects the rights and liberties of individuals. It establishes a system of checks and balances to prevent the concentration of power in any single authority and ensures accountability and transparency in governance.

While the other options listed may be important aspects or objectives associated with a constitution, they do not capture the chief purpose as effectively as option (c). Determining the objective for making necessary laws, enabling the creation of political offices and a government, and securing social justice, social equality, and social security are all functions or goals that a constitution may encompass, but they are not the primary or chief purpose of a constitution.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) It defines and limits the powers of government.

Q14. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights?               

(a) 1st Amendment                 

(b) 42nd Amendment                

(c) 44th Amendment                 

(d) 86th Amendment               

The correct answer is (b) 42nd Amendment.

Explanation:

The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India, enacted in 1976, is widely believed to have been enacted to overcome judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights.

The 42nd Amendment made significant changes to various provisions of the Constitution. It introduced several amendments with the aim of strengthening the powers of the central government and curtailing the scope of judicial review.

One of the key changes brought about by the 42nd Amendment was the modification of Fundamental Rights. It added the term “internal disturbance” as a ground for restricting the right to freedom of speech and expression, and it limited the scope of judicial review by amending Article 368, which deals with the amendment procedure of the Constitution.

The 42nd Amendment was seen as an attempt to reduce the power of the judiciary in interpreting and safeguarding Fundamental Rights. However, several provisions of the amendment were subsequently struck down by the Supreme Court of India in subsequent cases, reaffirming the significance of judicial independence and the protection of Fundamental Rights.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 42nd Amendment.

Q15. Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India :

 1.  The National Commission  for Backward Classes

 2.  The National Human Rights Commission                   

 3.  The National Law Commission  

 4.  The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission          

How many of the above are constitutional bodies?           

 (a) Only one

 (b) Only two                     

 (c) Only three                   

 (d) All four

The correct answer is (a) Only one.

Explanation:

Among the organizations/bodies mentioned:

1. The National Commission for Backward Classes: 102nd Constitution Amendment Act, 2018 provides constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).

2. The National Human Rights Commission: This is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. It is an independent commission entrusted with the responsibility of protecting and promoting human rights in India.

3. The National Law Commission: This is a statutory body established under the Law Commission of India Act, 1956. It is not a constitutional body.

4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: This is a statutory body established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. It is not a constitutional body.

Therefore, only one out of the four organizations/bodies mentioned are constitutional bodies, namely:

– The National Commission for Backward Classes

Hence, the correct answer is (b) Only two.

Q16. Consider the following statements : 

1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid. 

2. Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place. 

3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent. 

How many of the above statements are correct? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) All three 

(d) None

The correct answer is (d) None.

Explanation:

Let’s evaluate each statement:

1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of the decision become invalid.

This statement is incorrect. In case the election of the President of India is declared void, it does not invalidate all acts done by the President during their tenure. The President’s actions and decisions taken in the performance of their duties are considered valid unless specifically declared invalid by a competent authority.

2. Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.

This statement is incorrect. The election for the post of the President of India cannot be postponed due to the dissolution of Legislative Assemblies. The election process for the President is separate from the legislative elections, and the President is elected by an electoral college consisting of elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of the States.

3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.

This statement is also incorrect. The Constitution of India does not prescribe specific time limits within which the President must declare their assent to a bill. The President has the power to either give their assent, withhold their assent, or return the bill for reconsideration.

Since all three statements are incorrect, the correct answer is (d) None.

Q.18) Consider the following statements:

Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’ 

1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest 

2. hunting is not allowed in such area 

3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce 

4. People of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices 

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three 

(d) All four

The correct answer is (d) All four.

Explanation:

Let’s evaluate each statement:

  1. Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest.

This statement is correct. When an area is designated as a Community Reserve, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the respective state becomes the governing authority responsible for the management and conservation of the forest.

  1. Hunting is not allowed in such an area.

This statement is correct. In a Community Reserve, hunting is not allowed as it is a protected area designated for conservation purposes and to preserve wildlife.

  1. People of such an area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce.

This statement is correct. In Community Reserves, local communities are usually allowed to collect non-timber forest produce sustainably. This provision enables the communities to engage in traditional practices of collecting forest products for their livelihoods while ensuring sustainable use and conservation.

  1. People of such an area are allowed traditional agricultural practices.

This statement is correct. In Community Reserves, traditional agricultural practices by local communities are generally allowed. However, the specific regulations and restrictions may vary depending on the particular Community Reserve and its management plan.

Therefore, all four statements are correct. Hence, the correct answer is (d) All four.

Q19.  With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements:

1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.

2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block. 

3. The Chief Ministers of concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

The correct answer is (b) Only two.

Explanation:

Let’s evaluate each statement:

  1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.

This statement is correct. The notification of an area as a Scheduled Area within a State is done through an Order issued by the President of India. The President has the authority to declare certain areas as Scheduled Areas based on the provisions of the Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

  1. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District, and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.

This statement is incorrect. In the context of Scheduled Areas, the administrative units are different from the regular administrative divisions. The largest administrative unit in a Scheduled Area is typically the Autonomous District Council (ADC), which is established to administer and manage the affairs of the Scheduled Area. The lowest administrative unit may vary depending on the specific arrangements and governance structures within the Scheduled Area, but it is not necessarily the cluster of villages in the Block.

  1. The Chief Ministers of concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

This statement is correct. As per the provisions of the Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, the Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the President of India, who acts through the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, regarding the administration and governance of the Scheduled Areas in their respective states.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are correct. Hence, the correct answer is (b) Only two.

Q20. Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.

Statement-II : Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I 

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

The correct answer is (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Explanation:

Let’s evaluate each statement:

Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for the maintenance of efficiency of administration.

This statement is correct. The Supreme Court of India has indeed held in certain judgments that reservation policies, particularly those made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution, should not compromise the efficiency of administration. While Article 16(4) allows for the provision of reservations for socially and educationally backward classes, Article 335 imposes a limitation on such reservations by emphasizing the maintenance of efficiency in the administration.

Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration.’

This statement is incorrect. Article 335 of the Constitution of India does not define the term ‘efficiency of administration.’ Instead, Article 335 is the provision that emphasizes the maintenance of efficiency in the administration while making reservations. It states that the claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes should be taken into consideration while maintaining efficiency.

Q21.  Consider the following statements: 

Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production.

Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I 

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

The correct answer is (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Explanation:

Let’s evaluate each statement:

Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production.

This statement is correct. India does have significant uranium deposits, but it relies on coal for a major portion of its electricity production. Coal-based power plants are a prominent source of energy in India’s electricity generation mix.

Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.

This statement is incorrect. While uranium is used as a fuel for nuclear power plants, it does not need to be enriched to the extent of at least 60% for electricity production. The enrichment level required for commercial nuclear power plants is typically lower, around 3-5% of uranium-235.

Therefore, Statement-I is correct as India does depend on coal for most of its electricity production despite having uranium deposits. However, Statement-II is incorrect as uranium enrichment to the extent of at least 60% is not required for electricity production. Hence, the correct answer is (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Q22.  Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.

Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I 

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (c)

Statement-I is correct: Marsupials are not naturally found in IndiaHowever, Statement-II is incorrect: Marsupials can live in a variety of habitats, including trees, forest floors, open bush and shrub drylands, and even underground. Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

Marsupials are any members of the mammalian infraclass Marsupialia. They are characterized by premature birth and continued development of the newborn while attached to the nipples on the mother’s lower bellyA distinctive characteristic common to most of these species is that the young are carried in a pouchThere are more than 250 species of marsupials.

Marsupials are found in Australia, New Guinea, and neighboring islands, where they make up most of the native mammals found thereAbout 70 species live in the Americas, mainly in South and Central America, but one species, the Virginia opossum (Didelphis virginiana), ranges through the United States into Canada.

Marsupials can live in habitats from trees to the forest floor to the open bush and shrub drylands. Some, such as the wombat and marsupial mole even burrow underground.

Q23.  ‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

(a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature

(b) The United Nations Environment Programme

(c) The United Commission for Environment and Nations World Development

(d) The World Wide Fund for Nature

Answer: (a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature

Explanation: The ‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (ISSG), responsible for developing the Global Invasive Species Database, belongs to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). The IUCN is a renowned international organization dedicated to conservation efforts and the sustainable use of natural resources.

The ISSG operates under the auspices of the IUCN Species Survival Commission (SSC), which focuses on the conservation of species and their habitats. The ISSG specifically deals with invasive species, which are non-native organisms that cause harm to the environment, economy, or human health. They work to address the threats posed by invasive species through research, data collection, and knowledge dissemination.

By developing the Global Invasive Species Database, the ISSG aims to provide a comprehensive and accessible resource for information on invasive species worldwide. This database helps scientists, policymakers, and conservationists understand and manage the impacts of invasive species on ecosystems and biodiversity.

While the other organizations listed in the options, such as the United Nations Environment Programme (b), the United Commission for Environment and Nations World Development (c), and the World Wide Fund for Nature (d), play crucial roles in environmental conservation, the Invasive Species Specialist Group specifically operates under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (a).

Q24.  Consider the following fauna:

1. Lion-tailed Macaque

2. Malabar Civet

3. Sambar Deer

How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation: Among the listed fauna, the Lion-tailed Macaque and the Malabar Civet are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset. Both of these species exhibit a preference for being active during the nighttime hours.

  1. Lion-tailed Macaque: The Lion-tailed Macaque (Macaca silenus) is a species of primate native to the Western Ghats of South India. It is known for its distinctive appearance, including a mane-like tuft of hair and a silver-white lion-like tail. These macaques are diurnal, meaning they are primarily active during the day. While they are not nocturnal, they may exhibit increased activity during the early morning and late afternoon.
  2. Malabar Civet: The Malabar Civet (Viverra civettina) is a critically endangered small mammal found in the Western Ghats of India. It is primarily nocturnal, meaning it is most active during the night. The Malabar Civet spends its daytime resting and becomes more active after sunset, engaging in activities such as foraging for food.
  3. Sambar Deer: The Sambar Deer (Rusa unicolor) is a large deer species native to the Indian subcontinent. While Sambar Deer can exhibit some crepuscular behavior, being active during twilight hours, they are not strictly nocturnal. They are known to be active during both day and night, with peaks of activity occurring in the early morning and late afternoon.

Therefore, out of the listed fauna, only two species, the Lion-tailed Macaque and the Malabar Civet, are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset. The correct answer is (b) Only two.

Q25. Which of the following organisms perform a waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?  

(a) Butterflies 

(b) Dragonflies 

(c) Honeybees 

(d) Wasps 

Answer: (c) Honeybees

Explanation: Among the organisms listed, honeybees (Apis species) are known for performing a waggle dance to communicate the direction and distance to a food source to other members of their colony.

Honeybees have a sophisticated system of communication called the waggle dance. When a honeybee discovers a valuable food source, such as nectar or pollen, it returns to the hive and performs the waggle dance to share information with its fellow worker bees. The waggle dance involves the bee moving in a specific pattern, which conveys the direction and distance of the food source in relation to the position of the sun.

During the waggle dance, the honeybee makes a series of figure-eight movements while waggling its abdomen. The angle and duration of the waggle portion of the dance indicate the direction and distance to the food source, respectively. Other worker bees observe and interpret the waggle dance, enabling them to navigate accurately to the food source indicated by their dancing companion.

Butterflies (a), dragonflies (b), and wasps (d) do not perform waggle dances as a means of communication. These organisms rely on other methods, such as visual cues, pheromones, or flight patterns, to communicate and locate food sources.

Q.26)   Consider the following statements:

1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.

2. Some mushrooms have psycho- active properties.

3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.

4. Some mushrooms have biolumi- nescent properties.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Answer: (d) All four

Explanation: All the statements mentioned in the question are correct:

  1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties: Certain species of mushrooms have been used in traditional medicine for their medicinal properties. For example, the reishi mushroom (Ganoderma lucidum) is known for its potential immune-boosting and anti-inflammatory effects.
  2. Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties: There are mushrooms that contain psychoactive compounds, such as psilocybin mushrooms. These mushrooms, also known as “magic mushrooms,” can induce altered states of consciousness and hallucinogenic experiences when consumed.
  3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties: Certain mushrooms produce compounds that have insecticidal properties, acting as natural insecticides. These compounds can repel or kill insects. One example is the Amanita muscaria, which contains toxins that can deter or poison insects.
  4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties: Bioluminescent mushrooms have the ability to emit light through a chemical reaction. These mushrooms glow in the dark, creating a fascinating natural spectacle. One well-known example is the species called Panellus stipticus.

Therefore, all four statements are correct, and the correct answer is (d) All four.

Q.27)  Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels :

1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.

2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.

3. They are omnivorous.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation: One of the statements provided are correct when considering Indian squirrels.

  1. Indian squirrels, such as the commonly seen Indian palm squirrel (Funambulus species), do not build nests by making burrows in the ground. Instead, they build nests, called dreys, on trees or in crevices of buildings or structures. These dreys are constructed using twigs, leaves, and other materials.
  2. Indian squirrels do not typically store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. They are known to be scatter-hoarders, which means they collect and hide food items in various locations, such as tree crevices, holes, or their nests, rather than burying them in the ground.
  3. Indian squirrels are omnivorous.

Therefore, only one of the statements is correct, and the correct answer is (a) Only one.

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